The discussion on the choice of using Dwarfs instead of Tolkien's "Dwarves" has reached a point where I feel obliged to offer justification. Unfortunately, I don't have an original english edition of The Hobbit, so I would be glad if you could help me find the original quotes. I have the edition annotated by Douglas A. Anderson. The interesting part is in the prelude (the section entitled "The Hobbit, or There and Back Again", written in runes). In this foreword, Tolkien explains that he has used the words "dwarves" and "dwarvish" instead of "dwarfs" and "dwarfish"
only when referring to the dwarfs of the Middle-earth (pardon the pun). In his Note 1, Anderson quotes two passages by Tolkien: the first from the Letter n. 17, and the second from The Lord of the Rings, Appendix F. In both these passages, Tolkien says that he would have preferred the word "dwarrows", although it's a bit too archaic. Therefore I happen to be wrong, since I have confused "dwarfs" and "dwarrows". If I'm willing to respect Tolkien's sensibilities I should choose "dwarrows" or "dwerrows" for the plural. Let me know what you think.
P.S.: And yes, the use of "dwarves" instead of "dwarfs" was definitely intentional by Tolkien, at least according to Carpenter's biography:
"He was also infuriated by his first sight of the proofs, for he found that the printers had changed several of his spellings, altering dwarves to dwarfs, elvish to elfish, further to farther, and ('worst of all' said Tolkien) elvin to elfin.
The printers were reproved; they said in self-defence that they had merely followed the dictionary spellings. "
- J.R.R. Tolkien: A Biography, by Humphrey Carpenter
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